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RE: [16NG] DAD in IEEE802.16

"John.zhao" <john.zhao@huawei.com> Tue, 08 May 2007 09:02 UTC

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Date: Tue, 08 May 2007 17:01:06 +0800
From: "John.zhao" <john.zhao@huawei.com>
Subject: RE: [16NG] DAD in IEEE802.16
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To: "Paula.Tjandra" <Paula.Tjandra@motorola.com>
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Hi,Paula.Tjandra

	We do DAD is avoided to the address confliction occured.So even if MN own a unique prefix, it is still possible that it use a address the same as it's next hop(should be the AR). Do you think it is possible? If true, then maybe the DAD is still need except we can certificate that this situation is impossible in our model. Otherwise, why ?

	Best Rgds,
Thanks,
 				

	　　　　　　　　John.zhao

　　	　	　　　　　john.zhao@huawei.com
　　　	　	　　　　　　2007-05-08

Message: 1
Date: Thu, 3 May 2007 18:18:38 -0400
From: "Tjandra Paula-CPT015" <Paula.Tjandra@motorola.com>
Subject: RE: [16NG] DAD in IEEE802.16 
To: "Behcet Sarikaya" <sarikaya@ieee.org>rg>,      "gabriel montenegro"
       <gabriel_montenegro_2000@yahoo.com >
Cc: 16ng@ietf.org
Message-ID:
       <C089A1D88F85E84B9051FF4C97B574F601C8989A@de01exm68.ds.mot.com >
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Is it a requirement to assign unique prefix per MS in WiMAX?
<draft-ietf-16ng-ipv6-over-ipv6cs> seems to imply that it is.
Assuming that the MS/host has a unique prefix, why would the MS/host need to perform DAD? 

Regards, Paula.



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