Re: [Asrg] Implicit Consent (was: Another criteria for "what is spam"...)

Vernon Schryver <vjs@calcite.rhyolite.com> Thu, 05 June 2003 15:49 UTC

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From: Vernon Schryver <vjs@calcite.rhyolite.com>
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Subject: Re: [Asrg] Implicit Consent (was: Another criteria for "what is spam"...)
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Date: Thu, 05 Jun 2003 09:39:57 -0600

> From: Bill Cole <aarg@billmail.scconsult.com>

> I think you have your X's and Y's mixed up.

the mistake I made.

> In your example, Mr. Kay's axiom would imply that X has implicitly 
> given permission for Y to mail him.
>
> I think that's sound.

Are you sure of that?  Thinking about it some more, I think those
words not only confuse some of us but are dangerous.

Y surely already has permission to send non-bulk mail to X if Y has
legitimate possession of X's address (e.g. found somewhere open like
the archives for this list instead of bad means such as dictionary
attacks).
Saying that X's mail somehow gives more permission suggests that Y
has permission to do more.  
Would sending a message to Verisign asking about the real owners of
an odd certificate owned supposedly by "Microsoft Corporation" give
Verisign permission to flood your mailbox with their familiar stream
of messages about Verisign products?


Vernon Schryver    vjs@rhyolite.com
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