Re: [v6ops] The meaning of "IPv6-only" -- Re: sense of draft-vf-v6ops-ipv6-deployment

Fred Baker <fredbaker.ietf@gmail.com> Tue, 30 March 2021 23:07 UTC

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Subject: Re: [v6ops] The meaning of "IPv6-only" -- Re: sense of draft-vf-v6ops-ipv6-deployment
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> An "IPv6-only host" seems quite unambiguous to me, as does "IPv6-only CPE". An "IPv6-only ISP" seems like a recipe for bankruptcy, however: the only question for an ISP is *how* to provide dual stack service, surely?

Didn’t the speaker from Reliance JIO say, at IETF 109, that most of their services were in fact IPv6-only? The only reason they had for implementing IPv4 at all was certain services that they marketed to enterprises, which appear to be composed of Luddites.

I guess that part of the question is whether the phrase “IPv6-only ISP” says what the ISP implements, or whether it says how they communicate  with neighboring IPv6-incapable networks. I might describe T-Mobile as IPv6-only in the sense that they only implement or manage IPv6; they run 464XLAT (which is to say, translation) when a neighboring ISP is IPv6-incapable, but that is invariably in another network. An IPv6-incapable device in a T-Mobile network is about as communicative as a rock.

No, I don’t think dual stack is the end of the road. It is where we are at the moment.