Re: [OAUTH-WG] Clarification in Section 2.0 of draft-ietf-oauth-revocation-00

George Fletcher <gffletch@aol.com> Mon, 11 June 2012 21:11 UTC

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Date: Mon, 11 Jun 2012 17:10:48 -0400
From: George Fletcher <gffletch@aol.com>
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Subject: Re: [OAUTH-WG] Clarification in Section 2.0 of draft-ietf-oauth-revocation-00
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Paul,

I think I came to a different conclusion...

If I use the Resource Owner Password Credential flow and get back both 
an access_token and a refresh_token then I would assume that the issued 
access_token is tied in some way to the refresh_token. If the 
refresh_token is revoked, then my expectation is that the simultaneous 
issued access_token would also be revoked.

I read the spec as having a typo that should read...

If the processed token is a refresh token and the authorization
server supports the revocation of access tokens, then the
authorization server SHOULD also invalidate all access tokens issued
*based on* that refresh token.

Or maybe better... "invalidate all access tokens associated/tied-to that 
refresh token".

Now in the case that the client is retrieving a new refresh_token and 
access_token, then the new ones should be valid and the old ones 
potentially revoked.

Thanks,
George

On 6/11/12 4:09 PM, Paul Madsen wrote:
> Hi Doug, my interpretation is that 'for that refresh token' means 
> those access tokens issued in exchange for that refresh token.
>
> Consequently, for the cases you cite below, the access tokens at the 
> same time as a given refresh token need not be invalidated when that 
> refresh token is 'processed'
>
> I assume the justification for the rule is that an access token issued 
> in exchange for a given refresh token may have been compromised if the 
> refresh token had been. But there is no such causal relationship 
> between an access token & refresh token issued at same time
>
> paul
>
> On 6/11/12 3:31 PM, doug foiles wrote:
>> Hi all,
>>
>> I was hoping to get some clarity on a statement in section 2.0 of 
>> draft-ietf-oauth-revocation-00.
>>
>> If the processed token is a refresh token and the authorization
>> server supports the revocation of access tokens, then the
>> authorization server SHOULD also invalidate all access tokens issued
>> for that refresh token.
>>
>> My question is on the statement "access tokens issued for that 
>> refresh token". What does it mean to have an Access Token "issued" 
>> for a Refresh Token?
>>
>> This specific case is clear to me. I am refreshing an Access Token 
>> where I keep the same Refresh Token that I used to generate the new 
>> Access Token. I see the new Access Token was issued for that Refresh 
>> Token.
>> However these two cases are a bit muddy to me. Let's say I am using 
>> the "Resource Owner Password Credentials Grant" where the Access 
>> Token Response returns both an Access Token and Refresh Token. Would 
>> the Access Token have been issued for that Refresh Token? And let's 
>> say I am refreshing an Access Token but choose to create a new 
>> Refresh Token and immediately revoke the original Refresh Token. 
>> Would the newly created Access Token have been issued for the 
>> original Refresh Token or the new one that was created.
>> If a client would revoke a Refresh Token ... I would like the Access 
>> Tokens in all of the above cases to be automatically revoked as well. 
>> I just want to make sure I understand the model. Thanks.
>> Doug Foiles
>> Intuit
>>
>>
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>
>
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